Did Peter and Paul preach different gospels?

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That they did is a central tenet of a certain form of dispensationalism sometimes called “ultra”-dispensationalism. Here is an excerpt from a blog post at: Did Paul Preach a Different Gospel? – Escape to Reality

Read the New Testament and you might come away with the idea that there is more than one gospel.

The very first words of the New Testament in the King James Bible are, “The Gospel According to Matthew.” Read on and you will also find the gospels according to Mark, Luke, and John.

In the Gospels of Matthew and Luke, we find Jesus preaching the gospel of the kingdom, while Mark refers to the gospel of Jesus Christ and the gospel of God.

The word gospel does not appear in John’s Gospel, but in Acts and all the letters that follow, the gospel is mentioned plenty of times with different labels:

  • the gospel of Jesus Christ (Mark 1:1)
  • the gospel of Christ (Rom. 15:19, 1 Cor. 9:12, 2 Cor. 2:12, 9:13, 10:14, Gal. 1:7, Php. 1:27, 1 Th. 3:2)
  • the gospel of God (Mark 1:14, Rom 1:1, 15:16, 2 Cor. 11:7, 1 Th. 2:2, 8, 9, 1 Pet. 4:17)
  • the gospel of the blessed God (1 Tim. 1:11)
  • the gospel of his Son (Rom 1:9)
  • the gospel of the kingdom (Matt. 4:23, 9:35, 24:14, Luke 16:16)
  • the gospel of the glory of Christ (2 Cor. 4:4)
  • the gospel of your salvation (Eph. 1:13)
  • the gospel of peace (Eph. 6:15)
  • the glorious gospel of the blessed God (1 Tim 1:11)
  • the eternal gospel (Rev. 14:6)

These are not different gospels but different labels for the one and only gospel, namely the gospel of grace.

You are invited to read the entire article.

There is a detailed response to the topic of ultra-dispensationalism that can be read at: Wrongly Dividing the Word of Truth – Table of Contents – Bibleline Ministries

Be Blessed!

Columbo Apologetics #3

I have another friend, I’ll call him Bob, who I have known for some years now. Bob is, by his own admission, a Dispensationalist, but just the ordinary garden variety taught first by John Darby in the 19th century. As such, he agrees with me that salvation has always been by grace through faith, since Abraham’s faith was counted as righteousness. We’ve been chatting about certain passages in Romans via email.

During one of his emails to me today, Bob had this to say:

After quoting Gal 2:21 , “I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness comes by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.” (All well and good).

Then he said:

Then you have to also look at Romans 5:13 and Romans 7:7-9.

Romans 5:13 is before the law.  Abraham fell under this.

Romans 7:7-9 for Jews

I replied concerning Rom 5:13,

“Adam fell before the law was given and God confronted him and let him know he had sinned. One might say that God’s commandment “do not eat……” was ‘law’ but not the Law of Moses. Adam then passed on his fallenness to the rest of the human race that followed. Then Israel was given the Law of Moses and from that point that Law has served to awaken sin in human beings.”

Concerning Rom 7:7-9,

Paul was speaking to the church in Rome, in which there were, at one time or another, both Jewish and Gentile converts to Christianity.  The early Roman church(s) were dominated and led by Jewish disciples of Jesus of course,  but when all Jews were expelled from the city of Rome, however, only the Gentile Christians remained. Therefore, the church grew and expanded as a largely Gentile community from 49 to 54 A.D. Jews were expelled from Rome several times. In 139 BC the Jews were expelled after being accused of missionary efforts. Then in AD 19 Tiberius once again expelled Jews from the city for similar reasons. The Emperor Claudius was in office 41-54 A.D. and would have expelled Jews from Rome during that period.  Historians and theologians tell us that Paul wrote his letter to the church in Rome circa 57/58 A.D. What does that tell you about who Romans 7:7-9 was ‘for’? (Enter Columbo)

Bob replied with:

Adam and Eve got the knowledge of good and evil from a tree.  Not from Moses.

No one else for knowledge of good and evil from a tree but Adam and Eve.

To which I replied:

You are not listening, Ed. I said:

One might say that God’s commandment “do not eat……” was ‘law’ but not the Law of Moses. Here’s a question for you: Was eating from the Tree of Good and Evil a sin? Simple “yes” or “no” answer. Did Adam know it was a sin? Simple “yes” or “no”. IF (hypothetical and nothing personal), based on your assertion that before he Law of Moses there was no sin, I think we are done. IF you say no, I emphatically conclude that you are in bondage to the form of dispensation you espouse.

I hope he let’s that sink and remains silent.

The prevailing thought among certain dispensationalists is that dispensationalism is explicitly taught in Paul’s letters. They have to make that claim because they say they only follow what is clearly written and are “rightly dividing the word of truth” (2 Tim 2:15) If you dare suggest that dispensationalism is not explicitly taught in Scripture but was formulated in the 19th century by men (Darby, Bullinger and a few others), they refuse to  entertain the thought because ANYTHING outside of the KJV Bible is invalid and most, if not all of today’s Christianity is “twistianity”.

Maybe they don’t understand what “explicit” means. Maybe they have “steel trap minds” (rusted shut). Maybe 2 Cor 2:14 applies, in which case I grieve for their souls. Your guess is as good as mine.

Be Blessed!

Columbo Apologetics #2

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There are two main theological systems concerning God’s dealings with men throughout history based on dispensations of time & covenants. Both systems can be thought of as “frameworks” for interpreting Scripture. Theological systems are developed by men based on what they believe (or want to believe) is taught in Scripture.

The BIG question:

Which of the above theological systems can most clearly found in Scripture? One of them? Both of them? Neither one? Let’s take a look.

From the Grace Ambassadors Web site:

“If we believe the Bible to be God’s Word then we must make it the sole authority of truth above all else. ‘Mid-Acts Pauline Dispensational Right Division’ is simply another way of saying that the Bible is our final authority.”

NOTE: The Grace Ambassadors, as well as a few other organizations/groups teach as THE true biblical doctrine, a form of Dispensationalism. This author is NOT taking sides, but merely asking questions.

Other Questions:

1. Does the Bible explicitly teach dispensational ’ism’? No, but it can be implied if you want to develop a theological system around specific time periods in the history of the church. That is exactly what John Nelson Darby did in the 19th century.

2. Does the Bible explicitly teach covenants? Yes, and with very minor variations, theologians are generally in agreement concerning the various covenants that are found in the Bible. The terms Old and New “Testament” actually mean Old and New “Covenant”. Generally speaking, the OT represents a covenant of works, while the NT represents a covenant of grace. The Old Testament also contains specific covenants (contracts) established by God with specific people (Adam, Noah, Abraham, Moses, King David).

3. Do the Grace Ambassadors really hold the Bible as their final authority? Obviously not.

4. So what? Do I need to label myself as a Dispensationalist or Covenant theologian? No. I need to be faithful in proclaiming the message of the gospel (1 Cor 15:1-4) to the lost and dying world around me.

Be Blessed!