“For whom did Christ die?” is a question that has generated a lot of books, sermons, discussions,  debates, and arguments. Apart from attempting to answer that question at this juncture, consider the statement in the title. Does scripture contain such a statement, or even passages that would support such a statement” Here’s an example – what did the angel mean when he told Joseph:

“…an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife; for the Child who has been conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. “She will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins.” – Matt:1:20-21

Do those two verses support the idea proposed in the title?